C8060-220 IBM Watson Customer Engagement: Watson Supply Chain

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 36
Time allowed: 120 mins

This multiple-choice test contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.
This test is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

The test contains five sections totalling 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.
Approximately 40% of the test questions are either platform-agnostics, or applicable to both UNIX and Windows platforms. This exam does contain questions that are platform-specific. To help you prepare, please note the following:
(1)Questions in this objective cover some z/OS content
(2)Questions in this objective cover only UNIX content
(3)Questions in this objective cover only Windows content

Section 1 - Architecture and Planning 17%
Understand the product functionalities and benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct.
Describe basic architecture of Sterling Connect:Direct and its components.(1)
Identify environment components that interact with Connect:Direct (e.g. load balancers, firewalls, database for Connect:Direct on Microsoft Windows).(2)
Identify system requirements using worksheets.(3)
Explain the different methods used by Sterling Connect:Direct to store configurations on each platform.
Apply TCP/IP concepts.(1)
Solve a situation that has high availability requirements.

Section 2 - Installation and Configuration 25%
Apply installation procedure.(2)
Configure initialization parameters.
Modify configuration files (e.g. API, functional authorities, translation tables).(2)
Configure remote nodes in the Network Map.
Configure local and remote user and proxy authentication.(2)
Verify installations.(2)
Deploy patches for maintenance.(2)
Identify Sterling Connect:Direct File Agent usage.
Perform silent installs and mass rollouts.(3)
Explain the use of checkpointing.
Explain the use of cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
Implement clustering or high availability.

Section 3 - Deployment Operations (Process Language Scripting) 17%
Describe different methodologies to write processes (e.g. requestor, browser, text editor).(1)
Explain Process Language statements and logic flow.(2)
Solve a situation using code pages.
List different ways to submit processes.
Understand the structure of SYSOPTS on different platforms.(1)
Use binary and text transfers.(1)
Solve a situation of moving data between disparate platforms.(1)
Explain the use of Sterling Connect:Direct File Agent for automation.(1)

Section 4 - Administration (Monitoring, Maintenance and Tuning) 21%
Use Connect:Direct Requestor.(3)
Use Command Line Interface (CLI).
Use ISPF interface (IUI). (for z/OS)(1)
Determine the process completion.
Utilize and maintain statistics files or databases.(2)
Understand Sterling Connect:Direct utilities.(1)
Determine trace options.
Manage and control Sterling Connect:Direct process queues.(2)
Identify tuning requirements.
Identify and apply the appropriate software patches.(3)

Section 5 - Security 20%
Explain local authentication and user roles (e.g. admin versus general user).
Explain the different methods of remote user authentication (e.g. password, RACF, local versus proxy, snodeid, security exit).(1)
Understand the process to create, request and validate x.509 certificates.
Implement the Sterling Connect:Direct Secure STS protocol.
Use different methods for maintaining security on Sterling Connect:Direct Secure (e.g. spadmin, SPCLI, Sterling Control Center).(2)
Troubleshoot x.509 certificate issues (e.g. Sterling Connect:Direct traces).
Implement Sterling External Authentication Server for Connect:Direct.(3)
Implement FIPS option.

PartnerWorld Code: 15003801
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
This intermediate level certification is intended for administrators and implementers who are responsible for configuring, troubleshooting and deploying IBM Sterling Connect:Direct with focus on the Microsoft Windows 4.6 and UNIX 4.1 platforms. Some basic understanding of the z/OS 5.1 platform is required.

These technical professionals are also required to have conceptual understanding of the Microsoft Windows, UNIX, z/OS Operating Systems.

An administrator or implementer who passes this exam is able to install and configure IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, and provide:

knowledge of the Sterling Connect:Direct components that interact with the user interface that allows submission, execution and monitoring of Sterling Connect:Direct.
a comprehensive set of managed file transfer capabilities to facilitate data growth, use of automation, reduce security risk, and improve IT and business efficiency.
an understanding of secure connections between trading partners with customers, suppliers and business partners.
visibility and tracking of business data with customers, suppliers and business partners.
visibility for status of sent and received business transactions.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Before preparing for this certification, the following knowledge and skills are recommended and assumed:

conceptual understanding of operating systems
basic understanding of firewalls, load balancers and high availability (clustering)
basic understanding of network connectivity
basic understanding security, certificates and encryption

In preparing for this certification, the following IBM course(s) are recommended to further improve your skills:
6C02G: IBM Sterling Connect Direct for Unix V4.2.0
6C03G: IBM Sterling Connect Direct for Windows V4.7 Fundamentals

QUESTION: 1
Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?

A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager

Answer: D

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QUESTION: 2
In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node using Advanced
Program to Program Communication (APPC)?

A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name

Answer: A

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QUESTION: 3
In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?

A. ndm/|ib/
B.r1dm/blr1/
C. ndm/cfg/cIiapi/
D.r1dm/cfg/cd_r1ode/

Answer: B

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QUESTION: 4
In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing environment on
a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area where the multiple nodes can
place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various nodes are aware of activity. What
parameter is used to specify this?

A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path

Answer: D

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VCS-323 Administration of Veritas Backup Exec 16

Although each product varies in complexity and depth of technical knowledge, all certification exams, targeting customers in an administrative role, cover core elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation, configuration, deployment, product administration, management, day-to-day maintenance, and basic troubleshooting.

The certified administrator demonstrates an understanding of the installation, configuration, and administration of Backup Exec 16. The VCS Backup Exec 16 administrator with this knowledge will be better prepared to proactively manage the Backup Exec operations in the environment in which it is installed.

Passing this exam will result in a Veritas Certified Specialist (VCS) certification and counts towards the requirements for a Veritas Certified Professional (VCP) certification in Data Protection.

Exam Details
# of Questions: 80 - 90
Exam Duration: 105 minutes
Passing Score: 69%
Languages: English
Exam Price: $225 USD (or your country’s currency equivalent)

Suggested Preparation

Backup Exec 16 Administration
Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual classroom training class in preparation for the VCS exam. Be cautioned that attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification exam.

Recommended preparation steps:
Exam Preparation Guide (PDF): Download and review the guide to understand the scope of topics covered in the certification exam and how they map to the key lessons and topics in the associated training course(s).
Attend recommended training classes listed above.

Gain hands-on experience with the product. 3-6 months experience working with Backup Exec in a production or lab environment is recommended.
Sample Exam (PDF): Test yourself and your exam-taking skills using the sample exam

In addition, you should be familiar with the following product documentation and web sites:
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Licensing Guide
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Readme First Release Notes
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Administrator's Guide
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Software Compatibility List
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Hardware Compatibility List
Backup Exec Product Documentation
Backup Exec Product Page
Backup Exec Technical Support
Backup Exec Updates, Patches and News
Veritas Communities

Recommended hands-on experience (real world or virtual):
Recommended 3-6 months experience working with Backup Exec in a production or lab environment.
Have knowledge of the various Backup Exec 16 licensing editions.
Describe the basic components, devices, terms, and concepts of Backup Exec.
Install Backup Exec 16 and add additional agents and options on the Backup Exec server after the installation.
Describe the features of Backup Exec 16.
Describe the various backup methods available in Backup Exec.
Configure preferences and global settings.
Configure storage devices.
Create jobs to backup, restore, convert, and duplicate.
Install and configure Agents for Windows.
Add and manage protected server resources.
Install Backup Exec updates and apply updates to Windows and Linux agents.
Run inventory and catalog and other utility jobs.
Identify agents and options used with Backup Exec in their environment.
Describe enhanced backup job functionality (e.g., GRT, Instant GRT, Disk Staging, Duplication of backup sets, data encryption, snapshot, and virtual environments).
Perform basic troubleshooting (e.g., restart services, interpret job logs, check Event Viewer, check Configuration Tasks Widget, run Backup Exec troubleshooting tools, etc.).
Import, export, and back up the Database Encryption Key.

QUESTION 1
Which option should an administrator select to add a tape with a barcode to the library?
A. Initialize now
B. Scan
C. Inventory and Catalog now
D. Inventory

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
Which options must be installed to share a Robotic Library containing one tape drive between an NDMP server and multiple Backup Exec servers?
A. the NDMP Option and the Library Expansion Option (LEO)
B. the Enterprise Server Option (CSO) and the Virtual Tape Library Unlimited Drive Option (VUDO)
C. the NDMP Option and the Enterprise Server Option (ESO)
D. the NDMP Option and the Virtual Tape Library Unlimited Drive Option (VUDO)

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
Which two conditions cause Data Discovery to fail to detect remote servers in the same domain as the Backup Exec server? (Select two.)
A. The administrator failed to add the default logon account to the local administrators group on the remote servers
B. The servers have Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) disabled
C. The firewall on the remote servers is configured to block WMI traffic
D. The firewall on the remote servers is configured to block port 10000
E. The remote servers have an old version of the Symantec Backup Exec Remote Agent installed

Answer: B,C

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QUESTION 4
What are two requirements for configuring Optimized Duplication between two or more Backup Exec servers? (Select two.)
A. The Central Admin Server (CAS) and Managed Backup Exec Server (MBES) must be configured.
B. The NDMP option must be installed.
C. The OS must be similar on the Backup Exec servers where the Deduplication Folder needs to be shared.
D. The same Deduplication account must be used on all the Backup Exec servers.
E. The Deduplication storage on each Backup Exec server must be shared.

Answer: A,E

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QUESTION 5
Within which section of Backup Exec Settings should the administrator define the Database Encryption Key export path?
A. Preferences
B. Network and Security
C. Database Maintenance and Security
D. Storage

Answer: D

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C2150-201 Fundamentals of Applying IBM Security Systems Identity and Access Assurance

Test information:
Number of questions: 64
Time allowed in minutes: 105
Required passing score: 62%
Languages: English, French, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil)

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Advisor - Security Systems Identity and Access Assurance

Discovery (21%)
Application: Discover customers needs.
Application: Discover problems the customer is trying to solve.
Application: Analyze the maturity of the customer environment as related to security and IT process.
Application: Assess the current environment and map it to the technical requirements.
Application: Identify and map requirements into product capabilities.
Application: Prioritize the capabilities based on business value drivers and analysis.
Application: List the existing limitations of the customer environment.

Planning (23%)
Application: Prepare a conceptual view of the architecture.
Application: Prioritize and document the technical requirements.
Application: Plan requirements for performance, security, reporting, usability, availability, logging, and regulations. - performance includes product sizing
Comprehension: Identify general requirements for performance, security, reporting, usability, availability, logging, and regulations.
Application: Identify the feasibility requirements in terms of integration.
Application: Define integration points for in scope products with their existing architecture.
Comprehension: Describe product licensing models.
Application: Determine the cost benefit analysis for hardware and software implementation.

Design (26%)
Application: Prepare a Logical view of the architecture.
Application: Create scenarios that address customer's use cases.
Application: Provide suggestions based on product capability.
Application: Streamline and standardize the design based on industry best practices.
Application: Determine data flow model.
Application: Identify the scope and effort involved for customization.
Application: Demonstrate a proof-of-concept to showcase solution capabilities.
Application: Document solution customizations requirements and scope.
Application: Describe business/technical advantages of IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance solutions.
Application: Apply security and compliance concepts to the solution document.
Comprehension: Identify the prerequisites for software installation and configuration.

Develop (17%)
Application: Perform customizations that meet specific needs.
Application: Develop the Physical view from the Logical view.
Comprehension: Describe the basic installation and configuration options.
Application: Describe the basic performance tuning options.
Application: Determine the robustness and scaleability of the solution.

Transition (12%)
Application: Create a go-live plan based on UAT / pre-prod implementation steps including identifying potential pitfalls.

Comprehension: Identify skills a customer needs to have to maintain the solution.

Application: Identify best practices and work around to maintain the solution. - includes backup and restore. These topics are covered in the operational guide.

IBM Certified Solution Advisor - Security Systems Identity and Access Assurance

Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance is a person who identifies opportunities and influences direction for IBM security solutions within the customer environment and is responsible for educating and influencing key decision makers.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Map customer business requirements to IBM Security solutions.
Apply security and compliance concepts and standards to a customer's IT infrastructure.
Assess IT process maturity.
Assess the IT environment for security and compliance gaps.
Align IBM and business partner products and services to security and compliance opportunities.
Assess requirements and create a solution document.
Describe business/technical advantages of IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance solutions.
Apply security and compliance concepts to the solution document.
Recommend education opportunities to customer based on the IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance solutions.
Supply a transition document to interested parties.
Align the security solution with the architectural framework of the customer.
Understand the customer's business needs for identity and access management.
Understand government and industry regulatory compliance needs and requirements.

Requirements
Knowledge of IT security and compliance services (authorization, authentication, confidentiality, data integrity, non-repudiation). - Skill Level 3
Knowledge of IT process model (i.e. Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)). - Skill Level 2
Knowledge of process maturity models (i.e. Six Sigma). - Skill Level 1
Knowledge of IT security and compliance standards (government and civil), regulations, and certifications (PKI, SSL, SAML, Liberty, etc.). - Skill Level 2
Knowledge of IT professional security and compliance certifications such as CISSP. - Skill Level 1
Knowledge of IT directory/LDAP functionality. - Skill Level 2
Knowledge of IBM Pricing Model - Skill Level 2
Familiarity with key IBM Security Partner products (PKI - VeriSign etc.). - Skill Level 1
Understanding of IBM IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance products -DB2, Directory Integrator, WebSphere, IBM HTTP Server etc.). - Skill Level 2
Conceptual knowledge of networking environments and operating systems.

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QUESTION 1
A customer has a requirement which is currently unavailable in an out-of-the-box product.
Who would be able to assist in troubleshooting the customer when developing a custom solution?

A. IBM Sales
B. IBM Support
C. IBM LAB Services
D. Raise an enhancement request with IBM

Answer: C

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
A customer's IT infrastructure includes ten different directories, one for each country branch. The
customer now needs a single directory for some centralized applications. The customer would like
to make as few changes in the environment as possible.
Which product do you recommend?

A. IBM Security Identity Manager
B. IBM Security Directory Server
C. IBM Security Directory Integrator
D. IBM Security Access Manager for Web

Answer: C

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
A company is planning to design an identity and access management solution across multiple data
centers which will automate the user life cycle management and streamline their access
management process.
Which two key design principles should be factored in for designing a comprehensive identity and
access management solution? (Choose two.)

A. Design for integrity
B. Design with single zone
C. Design for accountability
D. Design for single layer of defense
E. Design for single data center and then extend it

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

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QUESTION 4
Which scenario is typical for onboarding a new web application into IBM Security Access Manager
for Enterprise Single Sign-On?

A. Use AccessStudio to create a profile in the test environment. Confirm the profile works and use
it directly in the production environment.
B. Create a junction configuration in the test environment, confirm successful authentication,
export configuration from test import into production environment.
C. Use AccessStudio directly in production environment to create a new application profile,
confirm by using the test functionality in AccessStudio, and upload new application profile to
production IMS server.
D. Use AccessStudio to create a new application profile. Add a condition so the profile is only
available to your test users. After confirmation of the test users, remove the condition to enable the
profile for all users in the production environment.

Answer: D

Explanation:

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QUESTION 5
A company is using IBM Security Access Manager and wants to extend the functionality of the
help desk users so that they can assist the end user in troubleshooting and diagnostics.
Which WebSEAL functionality is used to allow help desk users to assume the identity of the user
who is a member of the Security Access Manager Domain?

A. Switch User function
B. Switch Admin function
C. Transfer User function
D. Switch Application function

Answer: A

Explanation:

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C2090-632 IBM Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer

Test information:
Number of questions: 53
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 71%
Languages: English, French, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Advanced Developer - Risk Information Governance for BI
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos BI
IBM Certified Developer - Cognos 10 BI Metadata Models
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos 8 BI Migration

The Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Common Data Structures and Traps (16%)
Identify Common Data Structures
Identify different data traps

Framework Manager Basics (16%)
Identify the different model types that can be published from Framework Manager
Define the purpose of Framework Manager
Create a project
Identify recommendations for preparing metadata

Predictable Results (16%)
Identify recommendations to achieve predictable results
Describe why and how to implement a time dimension
Identify techniques for creating intuitive business views

Security (9%)
Describe the Cognos 10 security environment
Describe how to implement security on models and packages

Project Management and Maintenance (5%)
Identify techniques for managing Framework Manager projects
Identify techniques for managing Framework Manager packages

Query Subject Types (9%)
Identify different query subject types and uses

Generated SQL and Complex Queries (17%)
Identify SQL Generation in Complex Queries
Identify aggregated result sets for multi-fact queries
Identify aggregations in Report Studio SQL

Optimization and Tuning (5%)
Describe the performance impact of queries

Advanced Techniques (7%)
Describe how to leverage user defined functions
Describe how to resolve a recursive relationship
Identify considerations for drill-through values and managing MUNs

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 10 security environment?

A. Cognos 10 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time.
B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined.
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups and roles defined in the authentication providers.
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and roles (of which users are members), not individual users.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 2
In Framework Manager, which of the following statements is correct when working with a multi-lingual project?

A. The design language can be changed at any point.
B. A project language cannot be deleted once defined in Framework Manager.
C. A language must be added to the project before it can be published with a package.
D. When a new language is added to a project, all locales for that language are added as well.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 3
The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of the following Framework Manager objects?

A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
C. Relationships.
D. Parameter maps.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 4
What must a modeler consider when modeling for drill-through between multiple data sources?

A. Drill-through values must be cast.
B. Drill-through values must be conformed.
C. Drill-through values must be consolidated.
D. Drill-through values must be identifiers.

Answer: B

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C2090-625 IBM Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouse Developer

Test information:
Number of questions: 84
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 78%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Developer - Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouses
IBM Certified Advanced Developer - Risk Information Governance for BI
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos BI

The IBM Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouse Developer exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Data Manager and Data Warehousing (4%)
Identify how Data Manager can be used
Distinguish between OLTP systems and data warehouses

Catalogs and Data Source Connections (12%)
Describe the process of creating a catalog
Identify how to use SQLTerm
Describe how to configure text files using SQLTXT Designer
Describe how to package catalog components
Describe how to navigate through catalog components
Describe how to export catalog metadata to Cognos 8

Dimensions and Basic Hierarchies (7%)
Determine appropriate situations for using a hierarchy
Describe the use of the Reference Explorer tool
Describe the use of the Date Hierarchy wizard

Basic Dimension Builds and Fact Builds (12%)
Describe the types of builds
Describe the use of the Dimension Build wizard
Describe the process of creating a fact build
Describe the modification of build settings

Derivations and Derived Dimensions (6%)
Identify the benefits of creating a derivation
Determine the appropriate location to create a derivation
Identify when it would be useful to create a derived dimension

Conformed Dimensions (10%)
Describe the advantages of conformed dimensions
Describe surrogate keys
Describe how to deliver conformed dimensions
Describe how to check data integrity

Hierarchies and Lookups (8%)
Describe ways to modify hierarchies and lookups
Describe how to manipulate data using hierarchies and lookups
Dimensional History and Late Arriving Data (10%)
Describe the use of slowly changing dimensions (SCDs)
Describe the handling of late arriving fact and dimension data

Data Delivery and Data Processing (22%)
Describe delivering fact and dimension data
Describe how to merge and aggregate fact data
Describe how to restrict fact data delivery
Describe how to implement job control
Describe how to pivot fact data

User-Defined Functions (UDFs) and Variables (5%)
Describe how to create UDFs
Describe the use of variables

Troubleshooting and Tuning (4%)
Describe options to address memory and performance issues
Describe how to interpret the log files
QUESTION 1
Where can a developer define variables in Data Manager?

A. Metadata dimensions
B. Connections
C. JobStreams
D. Metadata collections

Answer: C

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QUESTION 2
When delivering fact data to a text file, what can be specified?

A. Line and field delimiters
B. Whether the file is in ASCII or EBCDIC format
C. Maximum number of rows to be stored in the file
D. Default text editor to use with the file

Answer: A

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QUESTION 3
What can be done to minimize memory consumption?

A. Disable dimension breaking on the fact build.
B. Disable fact build logging.
C. Enable dimension breaking on the fact build.
D. Enable auditing on the fact build.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true of the Navigator?

A. When searching for components, wildcards are not supported.
B. When a component is selected, dependent components are shown.
C. Library components (such as hierarchies) cannot be navigated.
D. Components from different catalogs can be compared.

Answer: B

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C2090-612 DB2 10 DBA for z/OS

The IBM Certified Database Administrator is the lead database administrator (DBA) for the DB2 product on the z/OS operating system. This individual has significant experience as a DBA and extensive knowledge of DB2, specifically
the new features and functionality related to version 10. This person is capable of performing the intermediate to advanced tasks related to database design and implementation, operation and recovery, security and auditing,
performance, and installation and migration/upgrades specific to the z/OS operating system.

Test information:
Number of questions: 67
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 60%
Languages: English

The IBM Certified Database Administrator is the lead database administrator (DBA) for the DB2 product on the z/OS operating system. This individual has significant experience as a DBA and extensive knowledge of DB2, specifically the new features and functionality related to version 10. This person is capable of performing the intermediate to advanced tasks related to database design and implementation, operation and recovery, security and auditing, performance, and installation and migration/upgrades specific to the z/OS operating system.

Section 1 - Database Design and Implementation (30%)
Design tables and views
Explain the different performance implications of identity column, row ID, and sequence column definitions (applications, utilities), reorder row format, hash access
Design indexes
Design table spaces (choose a DB2 page size, clustering) and determine space attributes
Perform partitioning
Normalize data (E-R model, process model) and translate data model into physical model (denormalize tables)
Implement user-defined integrity rules
Use the appropriate method to alter DB2 objects
Create and Manage XML and LOB objects
Understand impacts of different encoding schemes
Implementing data distribution and replication

Section 2 - Operation and Recovery (28.5%)
Knowledge of commands for normal operational conditions
Knowledge of commands and utility control statements for use in abnormal conditions
Identify and perform actions that are needed to protect databases from planned and unplanned outages and ensure that timely image copies are taken periodically
Load and unload data into and from the created tables
Reorganize objects when necessary
Monitor the object by collecting statistics
Monitor and manage threads and utilities
Identify and respond to advisory/restrictive statuses on objects
Understanding the significance of checkpoints
Identify and perform problem determination
Perform health checks
Develop backup and recovery scenarios
Describe the special considerations for recovery in a data sharing environment
Understand the concept of disaster recovery
Understanding the concept of virtual storage constraints and limitations

Section 3 - Security and Auditing (9%)
Understanding privileges and authorities
Protect access to DB2 and its objects
Audit DB2 activity and resources and identify primary audit techniques
Identify and respond appropriately to symptoms from trace output or error messages that signify security problems
Create and maintain roles and trusted contexts
Implementing column and row level authorizations

Section 4 - Performance (28.5%)
Plan for performance monitoring by setting up and running monitoring procedures
Analyze performance
Analyze and respond to RUNSTATS statistics analysis
Determine when and how to perform REBIND
Calculate cache requirements for new applications
Understanding and implementing data distribution and replication
Describe DB2 interaction with WLM
Interpret traces and explain the performance impact of different DB2 traces
Identify and respond to critical performance metrics
Review and tune SQL
Dynamic SQL Performance
Design features for performance

Section 5 - Installation and Migration / Upgrade (4%)
Understand the critical ZPARMs
Identify the migration/upgrade modes
Identify & explain Datasharing components

IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 10 for z/OS

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The IBM Certified Database Administrator is the lead database administrator (DBA) for the DB2 product on the z/OS operating system. This individual has significant experience as a DBA and extensive knowledge of DB2, specifically the new features and functionality related to version 10. This person is capable of performing the intermediate to advanced tasks related to database design and implementation, operation and recovery, security and auditing, performance, and installation and migration/upgrades specific to the z/OS operating system.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Experience as a database administrator on DB2 10 for z/OS DBA and system programming DBA areas
At least two years experience in database administration for the z/OS operating system
Some knowledge and experience in both the application DBA and system programming DBA areas
Knowledge of SQL

Capability to work independently and effectively in complex environments

---

QUESTION 1
Workload Manager (WLM) manages how many concurrent stored procedures can run in an
address space and the number of concurrent stored procedures in an address space cannot
exceed the value of the NUMTCB parameter. Which statement about the value of NUMTCB is
correct?

A. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for Java stored procedures.
B. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for REXX stored procedures.
C. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 for native SQL stored procedures.
D. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 when a stored procedure invokes DB2
utilities.

Answer: B

Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
If a single row of the PLAN_TABLE has a 'Y' value in more than one of the sort composite
columns, what is indicated?

A. The next sort step will perform two sorts.
B. There are multiple sorts in the plan step.
C. One sort in the plan step will accomplish two tasks.
D. Two sorts are performed on the new table of a star join.

Answer: C

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
What IBM provided stored procedure will access DB2 real time statistics tables?

A. DSNAEXP
B. DSNAIMS
C. DSNACCOX
D. DSNLEUSR

Answer: C

Explanation:

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QUESTION 4
The EXPLAIN STMTCACHE ALL statement provides information about SQL tuning. Which
information is part of the DSN_STATEMENT_CACHE_TABLE?

A. Filter factor information.
B. Stage 1 and stage 2 information.
C. Number of columns used in an index.
D. Number of times an SQL statement is executed.

Answer: D

Explanation:

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QUESTION 5
Which two of the following DB2 performance features will ignore clustering in favor of faster insert
performance? (Choose two.)

A. Append
B. Inline LOBs
C. Member cluster
D. Volatile table
E. Include columns

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

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C9020-560 IBM Midrange Storage Sales V3

Test information:
Number of questions: 63
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 59%
Languages: English, Japanese

Gather Customer Requirements (32%)
Identify a customer's storage qualifications.
Identify a customer's expectations of a new solution.
Given a scenario, demonstrate a conceptual level understanding of existing systems environment.
Identify customers key applications, performance requirements, and pain points and information to propose a solution.
Given a scenario, determine financial justification for system acquisition.
Given a scenario, determine a customer's growth requirements, upgrade path, and product lifecycle.

Value Proposition (28%)
Given a scenario, identify how an IBM storage solution aligns with customer requirements.
Given a scenario, quantify the business value of IBM storage products' features and functions and align to business goals.
Compare IBM storage products to customer-installed storage devices and competitive offerings, and identify advantages.
Given a scenario, identify how IBM storage products solve client data management issues.
Identify the value proposition of IBM maintenance, IBM websites, IBM sales tools, and IBM processes.

Determine IBM Solutions / Create Comprehensive Solutions (32%)
Given a scenario, identify the processes and procedures to integrate new solutions into an existing systems environment.
Identify workload characteristics and discuss typical business solutions.
Given a scenario, identify a storage solution that includes multiple products and solves a customer issue.
Identify appropriate resources within IBM or through the business partner channel to develop and close business.
Identify the roles and responsibilities of the business partner or IBM salesperson to use TDA and SAPR to ensure solutions meet the customer's business requirements.

Hybrid Cloud and Analytics Concepts (8%)
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables cloud offerings (hybrid, private, public).
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables analytics.
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables security.

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The IBM Midrange Storage Specialist identifies opportunities for business and generates/qualifies demand using a consultative approach. This specialist determines and effectively uses available tools and resources to determine and sell storage solutions that meet the customer needs and requirements. This specialist has a broad knowledge of the features, functions and benefits of IBM midrange storage solutions and knowledge of competitive solutions. The successful candidate will apply their knowledge of IBM storage products to the customer's environment in an effort to solve business problems.

The IBM storage solutions included in this exam are: hybrid storage, specifically the IBM Storwize Family (IBM Storwize V5000; IBM Storwize V7000 and V7000 Unified); IBM FlashSystem Family; midrange tape (LTO); IBM Spectrum Protect; IBM Spectrum Virtualize; SDS concepts; and VersaStack (IBM components). A basic understanding and general knowledge of IBM Storwize V3700; DCS3700; IBM Storage Cloud; IBM Spectrum Control; V7000 Gen1 Storwize V5000; and SVC are also recommended.

This specialist can perform the following tasks without assistance: determine basic product positioning across the full IBM storage product portfolio; gather customer requirements; identify and engage correct resources, including technical support, customer demonstration facilities and tools; possess general knowledge of the competitive landscape for midrange storage products; understand TCO/ROI fundamentals; articulate features/benefits/fit of IBM midrange storage products to solve customer problems; identify warranty, installation and support options; deal registration; know where to locate training materials and sales support materials (e.g., sales kits); and articulate CAMSS basics.

This specialist can perform the following tasks with assistance: drill down into solution specifics; articulate and present the configuration to the customer; mitigate competitors; develop the solution; be aware of the purpose and general capabilities of Disk Magic and Capacity Magic; be aware of the Solutions Assurance/TDA process, and where to find specific information on TDA requirements for midrange products; and articulate IBM midrange storage solutions relative to private and hybrid cloud implementations.

This specialist should be familiar with the following resources: eConfig; ePricer; competitive sales tools such as COMP database and CompeteCenter; Briefing Centers; TCONow!; IBM Systems Consolidation Evaluation Tool hosted by Alinean; IBM PartnerWorld; Migration Factory; Storage Assessments (in the Storage Playbook); Storage Playbook; and Visual Storage Intelligence.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Minimum 12 months practical experience selling midrange storage solutions with six months experience selling IBM midrange solutions.

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QUESTION 1
The sales specialist is recommending an IBM TS7620 to achieve greater efficiency with a client's current environment.
What is a potential benefit to the client?

A. Faster performance of their primary applications
B. Simplify legal and regulatory compliance
C. Minimize risk by sending tapes offsite
D. Higher productivity due to shorter backup windows

Answer: A

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QUESTION 2
A medium-sized SMB customer with an HP EVA 6350 needs new features that the HP system cannot provide.
The general business customer asks for a solution with easy migration and the ability to virtualize the old storage.
Which cost-sensitive IBM system should seller recommend?

A. IBM Storwize V3700 with external virtualization licenses
B. IBM Storwize V3700 with full featurebundle
C. IBM Storwize V5010 with full feature bundle
D. IBM Storwize V5030 with external virtualization licenses

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
A customer has a requirement for a low cost tape library. The library must support reparation of library resources (tape drives and cartridge slots) for four different application servers.
Which tape library should the sales specialist recommend?
A. IBM TS3200
B. IBM TS4500
C. IBM TS3500
D. IBM TS3100

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
A customer has a cluster of file servers running IBM Spectrum Protect as the backup application. The client wants to reduce backup and recovery time while eliminating physical tape handling.
Which IBM storage solution meets the requirement to work like a tape library and is based on disk storage?

A. IBM TS7620 with Deduplication
B. IBM Storwize V7000 with Easy Tier
C. IBM TS3500 with LTO-6 drives
D. IBM FlashSystem V9000 with thin provisioning

Answer: A

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QUESTION 5
Which resource should an IBM Business Partner representative consult for current IBM storage sales programs and incentives?

A. IBM Client Technical Specialist
B. IBM Business Partner Sales Playbooks on PartnerWorld
C. IBM Business Partner Client Executive
D. IBM Digital Technical Center

Answer: B

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