DES-1D11 Specialist, Technology Architect | Midrange Storage Solutions Exam

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist-Technology Architect, Midrange Storage (DECS-TA) track.

This exam tests the candidate’s knowledge to architect and size solutions for Dell EMC Unity and SC Series systems. This exam also tests the candidate’s knowledge of key product features of both of these storage systems.

Dell EMC provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Products
Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to:
 Dell EMC Unity(All Flash Array, Hybrid, VSA)
 SC Series

ExamTopics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

Dell EMC Midrange Architectures (25%)
 Identify and describe the Unity hardware (e.g., enclosures, I/O components, storage media options, etc.)
 Explain Unity storage resources and features (e.g., dynamic pools, RAID functions)
 Identify and describe SC Series storage resources, connectivity options (e.g., RAID, Consistency Groups, SSD, HDD options), and use cases
 Identify and describe the various controller options available in the SC Series models

Dell EMC Midrange Product Solutions (42%)
 Identify key features of the SC Series operating system
 Describe SC Series cross-platform replication functionality and use cases
 Describe how to provision and access Unity storage; including Block, Files, and VMware datastores
 Identify Unity advanced features for Block storage; e.g, FAST Suite, D@RE, host I/O limit availability, thin clones
 Identify Unity advanced features for File storage; e.g, IP Multi-tenancy, Advanced Static Routing, IP Packet Reflect, etc.
 Identify and describe Unity Data Protection (e.g., Snapshots, Replication, and Snapshot Replication architecture) solutions and use cases
 Describe Unity Data Mobility features, requirements, and use cases
 Compare and contrast similar features between the Unity and SC Series products

Dell EMC Midrange Best Practices, Sizing, and Design (33%)
 Apply Dell EMC midrange best practice recommendations for data service, system, storage, and host application configurations
 Identify and describe the sizing and design considerations for Unity and SC Series features
 Identify and describe how to size and design a midrange solution for performance, capacity, security, and resilience
 Describe the data gathering methods to size and design an SC Series solution
 Identify and describe the tools and resources available to size and design Unity and SC Series solutions
 Explain how to size an SC Series solution that includes Tiers 1-3, storage requirements, front-end and back-end connections, and common use cases
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of the total question set across the exam.

Recommended Training

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C9060-800 Fundamentals of Applying IBM Spectrum Computing V1

Number of questions: 65
Number of questions to pass: 40
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

This exam consists of 6 sections described below.

Section 1: Discovery 12%
Determine customer's existing applications and computing needs.
Determine the size and details of customers physical computing environment.
Determine the appropriate management framework: Symphony, LSF, Conductor, Conductor with Spark, Spectrum Cluster Foundation.
Assess client application onboarding requirements.

Section 2: Solution Proposal 18%
Describe the value proposition for Spectrum Computing solutions.
Respond to RFIs and RFPs.
Describe how Spectrum Computing can help consolidate existing compute infrastructures.
Describe the competitive landsacpe for Spectrum Computing offerings.
Recommend best practice for compute environments.
Describe High Performance Services offerings on SoftLayer (HPC Cloud).
Identify if a customer requires professional services for an IBM Spectrum Computing solution.
Identify Spectrum Computing products to increase resource utilization.
Explain difference between open source and Spectrum Compute solutions.
Describe and differentiate: LSF, Symphony and Conductor.
Describe Host Grouping.
Explain Spectrum Compute capabilities for managing application data.

Section 3: IBM Spectrum Conductor 11%
Describe benefits of Conductor.
Describe the Conductor architecture.
Define and deploy an application template.
Describe user management and security in Conductor.
Describe reporting features in Conductor.
Describe Conductor API.
Describe licensing models for Conductor.

Section 4: IBM Spectrum Conductor with Spark 9%
Describe the benefits and value of Conductor with Spark.
Describe Conductor with Spark instance groups.
Describe Conductor with Spark notebooks.

Section 5: IBM Spectrum LSF 31%
Describe the benefits of IBM Spectrum LSF.
Explain workload management in LSF.
Describe IBM Spectrum LSF architecture.
Describe user management and security in IBM Spectrum LSF.
Describe licensing models for IBM Spectrum LSF.
Describe IBM Spectrum LSF product add-ons.
Describe LSF use cases.
Describe reporting features in LSF.

Section 6: IBM Spectrum Symphony 19%
Describe the benefits of Spectrum Symphony.
Describe the Spectrum Symphony Architecture.
Describe user management and security in Symphony.
Describe how to onboard an application with Spectrum Symphony.
Describe resource management in Spectrum Symphony.
Describe reporting features in Symphony.
Describe licensing models for Symphony.

The sample test is designed to give the candidate an idea of the content and format of the questions that will be on the certification exam. Performance on the sample test is NOT an indicator of performance on the certification exam. This should not be considered an assessment tool.

Use the study guide to help pass this exam. A study guide is an easy to follow document that will help you prepare for this exam. The guide is free and can be downloaded immediately.

This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A9060-800 Assessment: Fundamentals of Applying IBM Spectrum Computing V1

Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.
This assessment exam is available in:

Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.

You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report, showing you how you did in each section.

Classroom Course

Course Title: IBM Spectrum LSF Basic Configuration and Administration for Linux

Course Abstract: This course teaches IBM Spectrum LSF 10.1 version.
The course is designed to give system administrators the knowledge required to implement and maintain LSF in their working environment. They will gain a solid understanding of workload resource management, cluster configuration and administration. The workshops provide valuable experience with the installation of LSF, cluster configuration and administration. The system administrator will also learn helpful hints and tips and develop fundamental troubleshooting skills.
Redbook

IBM Spectrum Computing solutions (formerly known as IBM Platform Computing solutions) deliver the power of managing, sharing, and optimizing resources for analytics, cloud, technical computing, and more in distributed computing environments.

These solutions use intelligent workload and policy-driven resource management to optimize resources throughout the data center, both on premises and in the cloud, and are faster, more flexible, and scalable to over 160,000 cores. IBM Spectrum Computing solutions use advances in software-defined infrastructure that can help you take advantage of the power of your distributed computing environment.

New IBM Redbooks content explores the IBM Spectrum Computing family of solutions and shows you the opportunities that these solutions can bring to your business.

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SY0-501 CompTIA Security+ (501)

Exam Details
Exam Codes SY0-401 SY0-501
Launch Date May 1, 2014 October ​4, 2017

Exam Description The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations. The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 minutes
​Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA Network+ and two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese. English (Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese estimated Q2 2018)

Retirement
English retirement: July 31, 2018;
Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese: December 15, 2018
Usually three years after launch
CompTIA Security+ is the certification globally trusted to validate foundational, vendor-neutral IT security knowledge and skills. As a benchmark for best practices in IT security, this certification covers the essential principles for network security and risk management – making it an important stepping stone of an IT security career.

Jobs that use Security+
Security Specialist/Administrator
Security ​Consultant
Security or ​Systems ​Administrator
Network ​Administrator

Companies that use CompTIA Security+ include:
Apple
Dell
HP
IBM
Intel
U.S. Department of Defense

4 Steps to a Cybersecurity Career
Want more CompTIA Security+ information?

Overview
IT security is paramount to organizations as cloud computing and mobile devices have changed the way we do business. With the massive amounts of data transmitted and stored on networks throughout the world, it’s essential to have effective security practices in place. That’s where CompTIA Security+ comes in. Get the Security+ certification to show that you have the skills to secure a network and deter hackers and you’re ready for the job.

Security+ is government approved
CompTIA Security+ meets the ISO 17024 standard and is approved by U.S. Department of Defense to fulfill Directive 8570.01-M requirements. It is compliant with government regulations under the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA).

Security+ is globally recognized
CompTIA Security+ is a globally recognized credential with certified professionals working in over 147 countries throughout the world.

Security+ provides substantial earnings potential
According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Security Specialists, Administrators and Managers earn over $86,000 per year.

Security+ is industry supported
Security+ is developed and maintained by leading IT experts. Content for the exams stems from a combination of industry-wide survey feedback and contributions from our team of subject matter experts. Learn more about the people behind the CompTIA Security+ Advisory Committee.

Certkingdom.com is CompTIA’s intelligent online learning tool to help you learn for your Security+ exam. It can verify what you already know and fill in knowledge where you need it. It’s a great addition to your learning prep and will be your guide on your path to master the Security+ curriculum.

Training Materials
There’s a wealth of training materials available that match your learning needs and learning style. Whether you are studying on your own, or in a classroom environment, we recommend CompTIA Authorized Quality Curriculum (CAQC) training materials that will help you get ready for your certification exam and pass the test.

For all training options, visit our training overview.

Instructor-Led Training
Instructor-led training provides a comfortable teaching environment with instructors that are familiar with the certification process and can help you master your certification exam. Find your instructor now.

Ready for the Test?
When you’ve completed your training and you know you can take your certification exam with confidence, head over to the CompTIA Marketplace and purchase your exam voucher that you will need to sign up for the test.

Once you’ve purchased your voucher, you can find a testing location and schedule your test.

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA Security+ certification is good for three years from the day of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification. Like Security+ itself, CompTIA Security+ ce also carries globally-recognized ISO/ANSI accreditation status.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA Security+ certification. Collect at least 50 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years, upload them to your certification account, and Security+ will automatically renew.

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QUESTION 1
A security analyst wishes to increase the security of an FTP server. Currently, all trails to the FTP server is unencrypted. Users connecting to the FTP server use a variety of modem FTP client software. The security analyst wants to keep the same port and protocol, while also still allowing unencrypted connections. Which of the following would BEST accomplish these goals?

A. Require the SFTP protocol to connect to the file server.
B. Use implicit TLS on the FTP server.
C. Use explicit FTPS for the connections.
D. Use SSH tunneling to encrypt the FTP traffic.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
A company has three divisions, each with its own networks and services. The company decides to make its secure web portal accessible to all employees utilizing their existing usernames and passwords, The security administrator has elected to use SAML to support authentication. In this scenario, which of the following will occur when users try to authenticate to the portal? (Select TWO)

A. B. The portal will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion
B. C. The portal will request an authentication ticket from each network that is transitively trusted
C. D. The back-end networks will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion
D. The back-end networks will request authentication tickets from the portal, which will act as the third-party service provider authentication store
E. F. The back-end networks will verify the assertion token issued by the portal functioning as the identity provider

Answer: C

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QUESTION 3
Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server's certificate?

A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID

Answer: B

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C8060-220 IBM Watson Customer Engagement: Watson Supply Chain

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 36
Time allowed: 120 mins

This multiple-choice test contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.
This test is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

The test contains five sections totalling 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.
Approximately 40% of the test questions are either platform-agnostics, or applicable to both UNIX and Windows platforms. This exam does contain questions that are platform-specific. To help you prepare, please note the following:
(1)Questions in this objective cover some z/OS content
(2)Questions in this objective cover only UNIX content
(3)Questions in this objective cover only Windows content

Section 1 - Architecture and Planning 17%
Understand the product functionalities and benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct.
Describe basic architecture of Sterling Connect:Direct and its components.(1)
Identify environment components that interact with Connect:Direct (e.g. load balancers, firewalls, database for Connect:Direct on Microsoft Windows).(2)
Identify system requirements using worksheets.(3)
Explain the different methods used by Sterling Connect:Direct to store configurations on each platform.
Apply TCP/IP concepts.(1)
Solve a situation that has high availability requirements.

Section 2 - Installation and Configuration 25%
Apply installation procedure.(2)
Configure initialization parameters.
Modify configuration files (e.g. API, functional authorities, translation tables).(2)
Configure remote nodes in the Network Map.
Configure local and remote user and proxy authentication.(2)
Verify installations.(2)
Deploy patches for maintenance.(2)
Identify Sterling Connect:Direct File Agent usage.
Perform silent installs and mass rollouts.(3)
Explain the use of checkpointing.
Explain the use of cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
Implement clustering or high availability.

Section 3 - Deployment Operations (Process Language Scripting) 17%
Describe different methodologies to write processes (e.g. requestor, browser, text editor).(1)
Explain Process Language statements and logic flow.(2)
Solve a situation using code pages.
List different ways to submit processes.
Understand the structure of SYSOPTS on different platforms.(1)
Use binary and text transfers.(1)
Solve a situation of moving data between disparate platforms.(1)
Explain the use of Sterling Connect:Direct File Agent for automation.(1)

Section 4 - Administration (Monitoring, Maintenance and Tuning) 21%
Use Connect:Direct Requestor.(3)
Use Command Line Interface (CLI).
Use ISPF interface (IUI). (for z/OS)(1)
Determine the process completion.
Utilize and maintain statistics files or databases.(2)
Understand Sterling Connect:Direct utilities.(1)
Determine trace options.
Manage and control Sterling Connect:Direct process queues.(2)
Identify tuning requirements.
Identify and apply the appropriate software patches.(3)

Section 5 - Security 20%
Explain local authentication and user roles (e.g. admin versus general user).
Explain the different methods of remote user authentication (e.g. password, RACF, local versus proxy, snodeid, security exit).(1)
Understand the process to create, request and validate x.509 certificates.
Implement the Sterling Connect:Direct Secure STS protocol.
Use different methods for maintaining security on Sterling Connect:Direct Secure (e.g. spadmin, SPCLI, Sterling Control Center).(2)
Troubleshoot x.509 certificate issues (e.g. Sterling Connect:Direct traces).
Implement Sterling External Authentication Server for Connect:Direct.(3)
Implement FIPS option.

PartnerWorld Code: 15003801
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
This intermediate level certification is intended for administrators and implementers who are responsible for configuring, troubleshooting and deploying IBM Sterling Connect:Direct with focus on the Microsoft Windows 4.6 and UNIX 4.1 platforms. Some basic understanding of the z/OS 5.1 platform is required.

These technical professionals are also required to have conceptual understanding of the Microsoft Windows, UNIX, z/OS Operating Systems.

An administrator or implementer who passes this exam is able to install and configure IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, and provide:

knowledge of the Sterling Connect:Direct components that interact with the user interface that allows submission, execution and monitoring of Sterling Connect:Direct.
a comprehensive set of managed file transfer capabilities to facilitate data growth, use of automation, reduce security risk, and improve IT and business efficiency.
an understanding of secure connections between trading partners with customers, suppliers and business partners.
visibility and tracking of business data with customers, suppliers and business partners.
visibility for status of sent and received business transactions.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Before preparing for this certification, the following knowledge and skills are recommended and assumed:

conceptual understanding of operating systems
basic understanding of firewalls, load balancers and high availability (clustering)
basic understanding of network connectivity
basic understanding security, certificates and encryption

In preparing for this certification, the following IBM course(s) are recommended to further improve your skills:
6C02G: IBM Sterling Connect Direct for Unix V4.2.0
6C03G: IBM Sterling Connect Direct for Windows V4.7 Fundamentals

QUESTION: 1
Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?

A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager

Answer: D

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QUESTION: 2
In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node using Advanced
Program to Program Communication (APPC)?

A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name

Answer: A

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QUESTION: 3
In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?

A. ndm/|ib/
B.r1dm/blr1/
C. ndm/cfg/cIiapi/
D.r1dm/cfg/cd_r1ode/

Answer: B

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QUESTION: 4
In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing environment on
a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area where the multiple nodes can
place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various nodes are aware of activity. What
parameter is used to specify this?

A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path

Answer: D

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VCS-323 Administration of Veritas Backup Exec 16

Although each product varies in complexity and depth of technical knowledge, all certification exams, targeting customers in an administrative role, cover core elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation, configuration, deployment, product administration, management, day-to-day maintenance, and basic troubleshooting.

The certified administrator demonstrates an understanding of the installation, configuration, and administration of Backup Exec 16. The VCS Backup Exec 16 administrator with this knowledge will be better prepared to proactively manage the Backup Exec operations in the environment in which it is installed.

Passing this exam will result in a Veritas Certified Specialist (VCS) certification and counts towards the requirements for a Veritas Certified Professional (VCP) certification in Data Protection.

Exam Details
# of Questions: 80 - 90
Exam Duration: 105 minutes
Passing Score: 69%
Languages: English
Exam Price: $225 USD (or your country’s currency equivalent)

Suggested Preparation

Backup Exec 16 Administration
Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual classroom training class in preparation for the VCS exam. Be cautioned that attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification exam.

Recommended preparation steps:
Exam Preparation Guide (PDF): Download and review the guide to understand the scope of topics covered in the certification exam and how they map to the key lessons and topics in the associated training course(s).
Attend recommended training classes listed above.

Gain hands-on experience with the product. 3-6 months experience working with Backup Exec in a production or lab environment is recommended.
Sample Exam (PDF): Test yourself and your exam-taking skills using the sample exam

In addition, you should be familiar with the following product documentation and web sites:
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Licensing Guide
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Readme First Release Notes
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Administrator's Guide
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Software Compatibility List
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Hardware Compatibility List
Backup Exec Product Documentation
Backup Exec Product Page
Backup Exec Technical Support
Backup Exec Updates, Patches and News
Veritas Communities

Recommended hands-on experience (real world or virtual):
Recommended 3-6 months experience working with Backup Exec in a production or lab environment.
Have knowledge of the various Backup Exec 16 licensing editions.
Describe the basic components, devices, terms, and concepts of Backup Exec.
Install Backup Exec 16 and add additional agents and options on the Backup Exec server after the installation.
Describe the features of Backup Exec 16.
Describe the various backup methods available in Backup Exec.
Configure preferences and global settings.
Configure storage devices.
Create jobs to backup, restore, convert, and duplicate.
Install and configure Agents for Windows.
Add and manage protected server resources.
Install Backup Exec updates and apply updates to Windows and Linux agents.
Run inventory and catalog and other utility jobs.
Identify agents and options used with Backup Exec in their environment.
Describe enhanced backup job functionality (e.g., GRT, Instant GRT, Disk Staging, Duplication of backup sets, data encryption, snapshot, and virtual environments).
Perform basic troubleshooting (e.g., restart services, interpret job logs, check Event Viewer, check Configuration Tasks Widget, run Backup Exec troubleshooting tools, etc.).
Import, export, and back up the Database Encryption Key.

QUESTION 1
Which option should an administrator select to add a tape with a barcode to the library?
A. Initialize now
B. Scan
C. Inventory and Catalog now
D. Inventory

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
Which options must be installed to share a Robotic Library containing one tape drive between an NDMP server and multiple Backup Exec servers?
A. the NDMP Option and the Library Expansion Option (LEO)
B. the Enterprise Server Option (CSO) and the Virtual Tape Library Unlimited Drive Option (VUDO)
C. the NDMP Option and the Enterprise Server Option (ESO)
D. the NDMP Option and the Virtual Tape Library Unlimited Drive Option (VUDO)

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
Which two conditions cause Data Discovery to fail to detect remote servers in the same domain as the Backup Exec server? (Select two.)
A. The administrator failed to add the default logon account to the local administrators group on the remote servers
B. The servers have Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) disabled
C. The firewall on the remote servers is configured to block WMI traffic
D. The firewall on the remote servers is configured to block port 10000
E. The remote servers have an old version of the Symantec Backup Exec Remote Agent installed

Answer: B,C

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QUESTION 4
What are two requirements for configuring Optimized Duplication between two or more Backup Exec servers? (Select two.)
A. The Central Admin Server (CAS) and Managed Backup Exec Server (MBES) must be configured.
B. The NDMP option must be installed.
C. The OS must be similar on the Backup Exec servers where the Deduplication Folder needs to be shared.
D. The same Deduplication account must be used on all the Backup Exec servers.
E. The Deduplication storage on each Backup Exec server must be shared.

Answer: A,E

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QUESTION 5
Within which section of Backup Exec Settings should the administrator define the Database Encryption Key export path?
A. Preferences
B. Network and Security
C. Database Maintenance and Security
D. Storage

Answer: D

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C2150-201 Fundamentals of Applying IBM Security Systems Identity and Access Assurance

Test information:
Number of questions: 64
Time allowed in minutes: 105
Required passing score: 62%
Languages: English, French, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil)

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Advisor - Security Systems Identity and Access Assurance

Discovery (21%)
Application: Discover customers needs.
Application: Discover problems the customer is trying to solve.
Application: Analyze the maturity of the customer environment as related to security and IT process.
Application: Assess the current environment and map it to the technical requirements.
Application: Identify and map requirements into product capabilities.
Application: Prioritize the capabilities based on business value drivers and analysis.
Application: List the existing limitations of the customer environment.

Planning (23%)
Application: Prepare a conceptual view of the architecture.
Application: Prioritize and document the technical requirements.
Application: Plan requirements for performance, security, reporting, usability, availability, logging, and regulations. - performance includes product sizing
Comprehension: Identify general requirements for performance, security, reporting, usability, availability, logging, and regulations.
Application: Identify the feasibility requirements in terms of integration.
Application: Define integration points for in scope products with their existing architecture.
Comprehension: Describe product licensing models.
Application: Determine the cost benefit analysis for hardware and software implementation.

Design (26%)
Application: Prepare a Logical view of the architecture.
Application: Create scenarios that address customer's use cases.
Application: Provide suggestions based on product capability.
Application: Streamline and standardize the design based on industry best practices.
Application: Determine data flow model.
Application: Identify the scope and effort involved for customization.
Application: Demonstrate a proof-of-concept to showcase solution capabilities.
Application: Document solution customizations requirements and scope.
Application: Describe business/technical advantages of IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance solutions.
Application: Apply security and compliance concepts to the solution document.
Comprehension: Identify the prerequisites for software installation and configuration.

Develop (17%)
Application: Perform customizations that meet specific needs.
Application: Develop the Physical view from the Logical view.
Comprehension: Describe the basic installation and configuration options.
Application: Describe the basic performance tuning options.
Application: Determine the robustness and scaleability of the solution.

Transition (12%)
Application: Create a go-live plan based on UAT / pre-prod implementation steps including identifying potential pitfalls.

Comprehension: Identify skills a customer needs to have to maintain the solution.

Application: Identify best practices and work around to maintain the solution. - includes backup and restore. These topics are covered in the operational guide.

IBM Certified Solution Advisor - Security Systems Identity and Access Assurance

Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance is a person who identifies opportunities and influences direction for IBM security solutions within the customer environment and is responsible for educating and influencing key decision makers.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Map customer business requirements to IBM Security solutions.
Apply security and compliance concepts and standards to a customer's IT infrastructure.
Assess IT process maturity.
Assess the IT environment for security and compliance gaps.
Align IBM and business partner products and services to security and compliance opportunities.
Assess requirements and create a solution document.
Describe business/technical advantages of IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance solutions.
Apply security and compliance concepts to the solution document.
Recommend education opportunities to customer based on the IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance solutions.
Supply a transition document to interested parties.
Align the security solution with the architectural framework of the customer.
Understand the customer's business needs for identity and access management.
Understand government and industry regulatory compliance needs and requirements.

Requirements
Knowledge of IT security and compliance services (authorization, authentication, confidentiality, data integrity, non-repudiation). - Skill Level 3
Knowledge of IT process model (i.e. Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)). - Skill Level 2
Knowledge of process maturity models (i.e. Six Sigma). - Skill Level 1
Knowledge of IT security and compliance standards (government and civil), regulations, and certifications (PKI, SSL, SAML, Liberty, etc.). - Skill Level 2
Knowledge of IT professional security and compliance certifications such as CISSP. - Skill Level 1
Knowledge of IT directory/LDAP functionality. - Skill Level 2
Knowledge of IBM Pricing Model - Skill Level 2
Familiarity with key IBM Security Partner products (PKI - VeriSign etc.). - Skill Level 1
Understanding of IBM IBM Security Identity and Access Assurance products -DB2, Directory Integrator, WebSphere, IBM HTTP Server etc.). - Skill Level 2
Conceptual knowledge of networking environments and operating systems.

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QUESTION 1
A customer has a requirement which is currently unavailable in an out-of-the-box product.
Who would be able to assist in troubleshooting the customer when developing a custom solution?

A. IBM Sales
B. IBM Support
C. IBM LAB Services
D. Raise an enhancement request with IBM

Answer: C

Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
A customer's IT infrastructure includes ten different directories, one for each country branch. The
customer now needs a single directory for some centralized applications. The customer would like
to make as few changes in the environment as possible.
Which product do you recommend?

A. IBM Security Identity Manager
B. IBM Security Directory Server
C. IBM Security Directory Integrator
D. IBM Security Access Manager for Web

Answer: C

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
A company is planning to design an identity and access management solution across multiple data
centers which will automate the user life cycle management and streamline their access
management process.
Which two key design principles should be factored in for designing a comprehensive identity and
access management solution? (Choose two.)

A. Design for integrity
B. Design with single zone
C. Design for accountability
D. Design for single layer of defense
E. Design for single data center and then extend it

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 4
Which scenario is typical for onboarding a new web application into IBM Security Access Manager
for Enterprise Single Sign-On?

A. Use AccessStudio to create a profile in the test environment. Confirm the profile works and use
it directly in the production environment.
B. Create a junction configuration in the test environment, confirm successful authentication,
export configuration from test import into production environment.
C. Use AccessStudio directly in production environment to create a new application profile,
confirm by using the test functionality in AccessStudio, and upload new application profile to
production IMS server.
D. Use AccessStudio to create a new application profile. Add a condition so the profile is only
available to your test users. After confirmation of the test users, remove the condition to enable the
profile for all users in the production environment.

Answer: D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
A company is using IBM Security Access Manager and wants to extend the functionality of the
help desk users so that they can assist the end user in troubleshooting and diagnostics.
Which WebSEAL functionality is used to allow help desk users to assume the identity of the user
who is a member of the Security Access Manager Domain?

A. Switch User function
B. Switch Admin function
C. Transfer User function
D. Switch Application function

Answer: A

Explanation:

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C2090-632 IBM Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer

Test information:
Number of questions: 53
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 71%
Languages: English, French, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Advanced Developer - Risk Information Governance for BI
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos BI
IBM Certified Developer - Cognos 10 BI Metadata Models
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos 8 BI Migration

The Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Common Data Structures and Traps (16%)
Identify Common Data Structures
Identify different data traps

Framework Manager Basics (16%)
Identify the different model types that can be published from Framework Manager
Define the purpose of Framework Manager
Create a project
Identify recommendations for preparing metadata

Predictable Results (16%)
Identify recommendations to achieve predictable results
Describe why and how to implement a time dimension
Identify techniques for creating intuitive business views

Security (9%)
Describe the Cognos 10 security environment
Describe how to implement security on models and packages

Project Management and Maintenance (5%)
Identify techniques for managing Framework Manager projects
Identify techniques for managing Framework Manager packages

Query Subject Types (9%)
Identify different query subject types and uses

Generated SQL and Complex Queries (17%)
Identify SQL Generation in Complex Queries
Identify aggregated result sets for multi-fact queries
Identify aggregations in Report Studio SQL

Optimization and Tuning (5%)
Describe the performance impact of queries

Advanced Techniques (7%)
Describe how to leverage user defined functions
Describe how to resolve a recursive relationship
Identify considerations for drill-through values and managing MUNs

---

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 10 security environment?

A. Cognos 10 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time.
B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined.
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups and roles defined in the authentication providers.
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and roles (of which users are members), not individual users.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 2
In Framework Manager, which of the following statements is correct when working with a multi-lingual project?

A. The design language can be changed at any point.
B. A project language cannot be deleted once defined in Framework Manager.
C. A language must be added to the project before it can be published with a package.
D. When a new language is added to a project, all locales for that language are added as well.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 3
The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of the following Framework Manager objects?

A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
C. Relationships.
D. Parameter maps.

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 4
What must a modeler consider when modeling for drill-through between multiple data sources?

A. Drill-through values must be cast.
B. Drill-through values must be conformed.
C. Drill-through values must be consolidated.
D. Drill-through values must be identifiers.

Answer: B

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C2090-625 IBM Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouse Developer

Test information:
Number of questions: 84
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 78%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Developer - Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouses
IBM Certified Advanced Developer - Risk Information Governance for BI
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos BI

The IBM Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouse Developer exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Data Manager and Data Warehousing (4%)
Identify how Data Manager can be used
Distinguish between OLTP systems and data warehouses

Catalogs and Data Source Connections (12%)
Describe the process of creating a catalog
Identify how to use SQLTerm
Describe how to configure text files using SQLTXT Designer
Describe how to package catalog components
Describe how to navigate through catalog components
Describe how to export catalog metadata to Cognos 8

Dimensions and Basic Hierarchies (7%)
Determine appropriate situations for using a hierarchy
Describe the use of the Reference Explorer tool
Describe the use of the Date Hierarchy wizard

Basic Dimension Builds and Fact Builds (12%)
Describe the types of builds
Describe the use of the Dimension Build wizard
Describe the process of creating a fact build
Describe the modification of build settings

Derivations and Derived Dimensions (6%)
Identify the benefits of creating a derivation
Determine the appropriate location to create a derivation
Identify when it would be useful to create a derived dimension

Conformed Dimensions (10%)
Describe the advantages of conformed dimensions
Describe surrogate keys
Describe how to deliver conformed dimensions
Describe how to check data integrity

Hierarchies and Lookups (8%)
Describe ways to modify hierarchies and lookups
Describe how to manipulate data using hierarchies and lookups
Dimensional History and Late Arriving Data (10%)
Describe the use of slowly changing dimensions (SCDs)
Describe the handling of late arriving fact and dimension data

Data Delivery and Data Processing (22%)
Describe delivering fact and dimension data
Describe how to merge and aggregate fact data
Describe how to restrict fact data delivery
Describe how to implement job control
Describe how to pivot fact data

User-Defined Functions (UDFs) and Variables (5%)
Describe how to create UDFs
Describe the use of variables

Troubleshooting and Tuning (4%)
Describe options to address memory and performance issues
Describe how to interpret the log files
QUESTION 1
Where can a developer define variables in Data Manager?

A. Metadata dimensions
B. Connections
C. JobStreams
D. Metadata collections

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 2
When delivering fact data to a text file, what can be specified?

A. Line and field delimiters
B. Whether the file is in ASCII or EBCDIC format
C. Maximum number of rows to be stored in the file
D. Default text editor to use with the file

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 3
What can be done to minimize memory consumption?

A. Disable dimension breaking on the fact build.
B. Disable fact build logging.
C. Enable dimension breaking on the fact build.
D. Enable auditing on the fact build.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true of the Navigator?

A. When searching for components, wildcards are not supported.
B. When a component is selected, dependent components are shown.
C. Library components (such as hierarchies) cannot be navigated.
D. Components from different catalogs can be compared.

Answer: B

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C2090-612 DB2 10 DBA for z/OS

The IBM Certified Database Administrator is the lead database administrator (DBA) for the DB2 product on the z/OS operating system. This individual has significant experience as a DBA and extensive knowledge of DB2, specifically
the new features and functionality related to version 10. This person is capable of performing the intermediate to advanced tasks related to database design and implementation, operation and recovery, security and auditing,
performance, and installation and migration/upgrades specific to the z/OS operating system.

Test information:
Number of questions: 67
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 60%
Languages: English

The IBM Certified Database Administrator is the lead database administrator (DBA) for the DB2 product on the z/OS operating system. This individual has significant experience as a DBA and extensive knowledge of DB2, specifically the new features and functionality related to version 10. This person is capable of performing the intermediate to advanced tasks related to database design and implementation, operation and recovery, security and auditing, performance, and installation and migration/upgrades specific to the z/OS operating system.

Section 1 - Database Design and Implementation (30%)
Design tables and views
Explain the different performance implications of identity column, row ID, and sequence column definitions (applications, utilities), reorder row format, hash access
Design indexes
Design table spaces (choose a DB2 page size, clustering) and determine space attributes
Perform partitioning
Normalize data (E-R model, process model) and translate data model into physical model (denormalize tables)
Implement user-defined integrity rules
Use the appropriate method to alter DB2 objects
Create and Manage XML and LOB objects
Understand impacts of different encoding schemes
Implementing data distribution and replication

Section 2 - Operation and Recovery (28.5%)
Knowledge of commands for normal operational conditions
Knowledge of commands and utility control statements for use in abnormal conditions
Identify and perform actions that are needed to protect databases from planned and unplanned outages and ensure that timely image copies are taken periodically
Load and unload data into and from the created tables
Reorganize objects when necessary
Monitor the object by collecting statistics
Monitor and manage threads and utilities
Identify and respond to advisory/restrictive statuses on objects
Understanding the significance of checkpoints
Identify and perform problem determination
Perform health checks
Develop backup and recovery scenarios
Describe the special considerations for recovery in a data sharing environment
Understand the concept of disaster recovery
Understanding the concept of virtual storage constraints and limitations

Section 3 - Security and Auditing (9%)
Understanding privileges and authorities
Protect access to DB2 and its objects
Audit DB2 activity and resources and identify primary audit techniques
Identify and respond appropriately to symptoms from trace output or error messages that signify security problems
Create and maintain roles and trusted contexts
Implementing column and row level authorizations

Section 4 - Performance (28.5%)
Plan for performance monitoring by setting up and running monitoring procedures
Analyze performance
Analyze and respond to RUNSTATS statistics analysis
Determine when and how to perform REBIND
Calculate cache requirements for new applications
Understanding and implementing data distribution and replication
Describe DB2 interaction with WLM
Interpret traces and explain the performance impact of different DB2 traces
Identify and respond to critical performance metrics
Review and tune SQL
Dynamic SQL Performance
Design features for performance

Section 5 - Installation and Migration / Upgrade (4%)
Understand the critical ZPARMs
Identify the migration/upgrade modes
Identify & explain Datasharing components

IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 10 for z/OS

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The IBM Certified Database Administrator is the lead database administrator (DBA) for the DB2 product on the z/OS operating system. This individual has significant experience as a DBA and extensive knowledge of DB2, specifically the new features and functionality related to version 10. This person is capable of performing the intermediate to advanced tasks related to database design and implementation, operation and recovery, security and auditing, performance, and installation and migration/upgrades specific to the z/OS operating system.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Experience as a database administrator on DB2 10 for z/OS DBA and system programming DBA areas
At least two years experience in database administration for the z/OS operating system
Some knowledge and experience in both the application DBA and system programming DBA areas
Knowledge of SQL

Capability to work independently and effectively in complex environments

---

QUESTION 1
Workload Manager (WLM) manages how many concurrent stored procedures can run in an
address space and the number of concurrent stored procedures in an address space cannot
exceed the value of the NUMTCB parameter. Which statement about the value of NUMTCB is
correct?

A. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for Java stored procedures.
B. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for REXX stored procedures.
C. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 for native SQL stored procedures.
D. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 when a stored procedure invokes DB2
utilities.

Answer: B

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
If a single row of the PLAN_TABLE has a 'Y' value in more than one of the sort composite
columns, what is indicated?

A. The next sort step will perform two sorts.
B. There are multiple sorts in the plan step.
C. One sort in the plan step will accomplish two tasks.
D. Two sorts are performed on the new table of a star join.

Answer: C

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
What IBM provided stored procedure will access DB2 real time statistics tables?

A. DSNAEXP
B. DSNAIMS
C. DSNACCOX
D. DSNLEUSR

Answer: C

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 4
The EXPLAIN STMTCACHE ALL statement provides information about SQL tuning. Which
information is part of the DSN_STATEMENT_CACHE_TABLE?

A. Filter factor information.
B. Stage 1 and stage 2 information.
C. Number of columns used in an index.
D. Number of times an SQL statement is executed.

Answer: D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
Which two of the following DB2 performance features will ignore clustering in favor of faster insert
performance? (Choose two.)

A. Append
B. Inline LOBs
C. Member cluster
D. Volatile table
E. Include columns

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

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C9020-560 IBM Midrange Storage Sales V3

Test information:
Number of questions: 63
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 59%
Languages: English, Japanese

Gather Customer Requirements (32%)
Identify a customer's storage qualifications.
Identify a customer's expectations of a new solution.
Given a scenario, demonstrate a conceptual level understanding of existing systems environment.
Identify customers key applications, performance requirements, and pain points and information to propose a solution.
Given a scenario, determine financial justification for system acquisition.
Given a scenario, determine a customer's growth requirements, upgrade path, and product lifecycle.

Value Proposition (28%)
Given a scenario, identify how an IBM storage solution aligns with customer requirements.
Given a scenario, quantify the business value of IBM storage products' features and functions and align to business goals.
Compare IBM storage products to customer-installed storage devices and competitive offerings, and identify advantages.
Given a scenario, identify how IBM storage products solve client data management issues.
Identify the value proposition of IBM maintenance, IBM websites, IBM sales tools, and IBM processes.

Determine IBM Solutions / Create Comprehensive Solutions (32%)
Given a scenario, identify the processes and procedures to integrate new solutions into an existing systems environment.
Identify workload characteristics and discuss typical business solutions.
Given a scenario, identify a storage solution that includes multiple products and solves a customer issue.
Identify appropriate resources within IBM or through the business partner channel to develop and close business.
Identify the roles and responsibilities of the business partner or IBM salesperson to use TDA and SAPR to ensure solutions meet the customer's business requirements.

Hybrid Cloud and Analytics Concepts (8%)
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables cloud offerings (hybrid, private, public).
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables analytics.
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables security.

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The IBM Midrange Storage Specialist identifies opportunities for business and generates/qualifies demand using a consultative approach. This specialist determines and effectively uses available tools and resources to determine and sell storage solutions that meet the customer needs and requirements. This specialist has a broad knowledge of the features, functions and benefits of IBM midrange storage solutions and knowledge of competitive solutions. The successful candidate will apply their knowledge of IBM storage products to the customer's environment in an effort to solve business problems.

The IBM storage solutions included in this exam are: hybrid storage, specifically the IBM Storwize Family (IBM Storwize V5000; IBM Storwize V7000 and V7000 Unified); IBM FlashSystem Family; midrange tape (LTO); IBM Spectrum Protect; IBM Spectrum Virtualize; SDS concepts; and VersaStack (IBM components). A basic understanding and general knowledge of IBM Storwize V3700; DCS3700; IBM Storage Cloud; IBM Spectrum Control; V7000 Gen1 Storwize V5000; and SVC are also recommended.

This specialist can perform the following tasks without assistance: determine basic product positioning across the full IBM storage product portfolio; gather customer requirements; identify and engage correct resources, including technical support, customer demonstration facilities and tools; possess general knowledge of the competitive landscape for midrange storage products; understand TCO/ROI fundamentals; articulate features/benefits/fit of IBM midrange storage products to solve customer problems; identify warranty, installation and support options; deal registration; know where to locate training materials and sales support materials (e.g., sales kits); and articulate CAMSS basics.

This specialist can perform the following tasks with assistance: drill down into solution specifics; articulate and present the configuration to the customer; mitigate competitors; develop the solution; be aware of the purpose and general capabilities of Disk Magic and Capacity Magic; be aware of the Solutions Assurance/TDA process, and where to find specific information on TDA requirements for midrange products; and articulate IBM midrange storage solutions relative to private and hybrid cloud implementations.

This specialist should be familiar with the following resources: eConfig; ePricer; competitive sales tools such as COMP database and CompeteCenter; Briefing Centers; TCONow!; IBM Systems Consolidation Evaluation Tool hosted by Alinean; IBM PartnerWorld; Migration Factory; Storage Assessments (in the Storage Playbook); Storage Playbook; and Visual Storage Intelligence.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Minimum 12 months practical experience selling midrange storage solutions with six months experience selling IBM midrange solutions.

---

QUESTION 1
The sales specialist is recommending an IBM TS7620 to achieve greater efficiency with a client's current environment.
What is a potential benefit to the client?

A. Faster performance of their primary applications
B. Simplify legal and regulatory compliance
C. Minimize risk by sending tapes offsite
D. Higher productivity due to shorter backup windows

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 2
A medium-sized SMB customer with an HP EVA 6350 needs new features that the HP system cannot provide.
The general business customer asks for a solution with easy migration and the ability to virtualize the old storage.
Which cost-sensitive IBM system should seller recommend?

A. IBM Storwize V3700 with external virtualization licenses
B. IBM Storwize V3700 with full featurebundle
C. IBM Storwize V5010 with full feature bundle
D. IBM Storwize V5030 with external virtualization licenses

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 3
A customer has a requirement for a low cost tape library. The library must support reparation of library resources (tape drives and cartridge slots) for four different application servers.
Which tape library should the sales specialist recommend?
A. IBM TS3200
B. IBM TS4500
C. IBM TS3500
D. IBM TS3100

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 4
A customer has a cluster of file servers running IBM Spectrum Protect as the backup application. The client wants to reduce backup and recovery time while eliminating physical tape handling.
Which IBM storage solution meets the requirement to work like a tape library and is based on disk storage?

A. IBM TS7620 with Deduplication
B. IBM Storwize V7000 with Easy Tier
C. IBM TS3500 with LTO-6 drives
D. IBM FlashSystem V9000 with thin provisioning

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 5
Which resource should an IBM Business Partner representative consult for current IBM storage sales programs and incentives?

A. IBM Client Technical Specialist
B. IBM Business Partner Sales Playbooks on PartnerWorld
C. IBM Business Partner Client Executive
D. IBM Digital Technical Center

Answer: B

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C2090-102 IBM Big Data Architect

Test information:
Number of questions: 55
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 60%
Languages: English

This test consists of 5 sections containing a total of 55 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Requirements (16%)
Define the input data structure
Define the outputs
Define the security requirements
Define the requirements for replacing and/or merging with existing business solutions
Define the solution to meet the customer's SLA
Define the network requirements based on the customer's requirements

Use Cases (46%)
Determine when a cloud based solution is more appropriate vs. in-house (and migration plans from one to the other)
Demonstrate why Cloudant would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why SQL or NoSQL would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why Open Data Platform would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why BigInsights would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why BigSQL would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why Hadoop would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why BigR and SPSS would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why BigSheets would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why Streams would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why Netezza would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why DB2 BLU would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why GPFS/HPFS would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why Spark would be an applicable technology for a particular use case
Demonstrate why YARN would be an applicable technology for a particular use case

Applying Technologies (16%)
Define the necessary technology to ensure horizontal and vertical scalability
Determine data storage requirements based on data volumes
Design a data model and data flow model that will meet the business requirements
Define the appropriate Big Data technology for a given customer requirement (e.g. Hive/HBase or Cloudant)
Define appropriate storage format and compression for given customer requirement

Recoverability (11%)
Define the potential need for high availability
Define the potential disaster recovery requirements
Define the technical requirements for data retention
Define the technical requirements for data replication
Define the technical requirements for preventing data loss

Infrastructure (11%)
Define the hardware and software infrastructure requirements
Design the integration of the required hardware and software components
Design the connectors / interfaces / API's between the Big Data solution and the existing systems

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The Big Data Architect works closely with the customer and the solutions architect to translate the customer's business requirements into a Big Data solution. The Big Data Architect has deep knowledge of the relevant technologies, understands the relationship between those technologies, and how they can be integrated and combined to effectively solve any given big data business problem. This individual has the ability to design large-scale data processing systems for the enterprise and provide input on the architectural decisions including hardware and software. The Big Data Architect also understands the complexity of data and can design systems and models to handle different data variety including (structured, semi-structured, unstructured), volume, velocity (including stream processing), and veracity. The Big Data Architect is also able to effectively address information governance and security challenges associated with the system.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Understand the data layer and particular areas of potential challenge/risk in the data layer
Ability to translate functional requirements into technical specifications.
Ability to take overall solution/logical architecture and provide physical architecture.
Understand Cluster Management
Understand Network Requirements
Understand Important interfaces
Understand Data Modeling
Ability to identify/support non-functional requirements for the solution
Understand Latency
Understand Scalability
Understand High Availability
Understand Data Replication and Synchronization
Understand Disaster Recovery
Understand Overall performance (Query Performance, Workload Management, Database Tuning)
Propose recommended and/or best practices regarding the movement, manipulation, and storage of data in a big data solution (including, but not limited to:
Understand Data ingestion technical options
Understand Data storage options and ramifications (for example , understand the additional requirements and challenges introduced by data in the cloud)
Understand Data querying techniques & availability to support analytics
Understand Data lineage and data governance
Understand Data variety (social, machine data) and data volume
Understand/Implement and provide guidance around data security to support implementation, including but not limited to:
Understand LDAP Security
Understand User Roles/Security
Understand Data Monitoring
Understand Personally Identifiable Information (PII) Data Security considerations

Software areas of central focus:
BigInsights
BigSQL
Hadoop
Cloudant (NoSQL)

Software areas of peripheral focus:
Information Server
Integration with BigInsights, Balanced Optimization for Hadoop, JAQL Push down capability, etc
Data Governance
Security features of BigInsights
Information Server (MetaData Workbench for Lineage)
Optim Integration with BigInsights (archival)
DataClick for BigInsights (Future: DataClick for Cloudant - to pull operation data into Hadoop for Analytics - scripts available today)
BigMatch (trying to get to a single view)
Guardium (monitoring)
Analytic Tools (SPSS)
BigSheets
Support in Hadoop/BigInsights
Data Availability and Querying Support
Streams
Interface/Integration with BigInsights
Streaming Data Concepts
In memory analytics
Netezza
DB2 BLU
Graph Databases
Machine Learning (System ML)

---

QUESTION 1
What are the two levels documented in the Operational Model? (Choose two.)

A. Logical
B. Rational
C. Theoretical
D. Physical
E. Middleware

Answer: A,C

---

QUESTION 2
The inputs to the Architectural Overview document do NOT include which of the following?

A. Architectural Goals
B. Key Concepts
C. Architectural Overview Diagram
D. Component Model

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 3
The downside of cloud computing, relative to SLAs, is the difficulty in determining which of the following?

A. Root cause for service interruptions
B. Turn-Around-Time (TAT)
C. Mean Time To Recover (MTTR)
D. First Call Resolution (FCR)

Answer: A

Explanation:
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Service-level_agreement

---

QUESTION 4
“The programming model for client developers will hide the complexity of interfacing to legacy systems” is an example of which of the following?

A. A use case
B. An architectural decision
C. A client imperative
D. An empathy statement

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the artifact that assists in ensuring that the project is on the right path toward success?

A. Component Model
B. Empathy Map
C. Viability Assessment
D. Opportunity Plan

Answer: C

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Exam 70-348 Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM

Published: July 28, 2016
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Office 365 Project Portfolio Management
Credit toward certification: MCP

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

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Create projects and programs
Define strategy
Define business drivers, create multiple driver prioritizations, analyze consistency ratio
Optimize portfolios
Capture project requests and ideas, rate projects against business drivers, determine primary cost constraints, determine resource constraints, set project dependencies, create a portfolio analysis, review and modify prioritizations in an analysis, force projects in and out of analysis, determine hired resources, compare and run simulations for project portfolio selection, add additional constraints
Create a new enterprise project
Create a project and manage workflow, use workflow approvals, import projects through Project Professional, create and manage project schedules using Project Web App, save and check in projects, import projects from Excel
Create programs
Insert sub-projects, create cross-project task dependencies, calculate sub-project summary fields, associate programs to portfolios, associate projects to programs

Plan projects and programs
Define deliverables
Add deliverables, set dependencies on deliverables, synchronize deliverables with project, link related items
Create tasks and a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Create and modify summary tasks and subtasks, rearrange tasks, create milestones, create manually scheduled tasks, set tasks as active or inactive
Schedule the project
Set date constraints, deadlines, dependencies, links, duration equations, effort-driven tasks, and formulas; choose task types; enter duration; set or change the task mode (manual or auto); display warnings and suggestions; use estimated durations and user-controlled summary tasks
Manage resources and teams
Edit resources with Project Web App, edit resources with Project Pro for Office 365, create team resources, create team assignments, add a team task to a task page or timesheet, map resource roles (Portfolio analysis)
Perform resource engagement
Submit, accept, modify, and reject a resource engagement request; build a team for a resource plan; build a resource plan for a project; set resource utilization; use committed versus proposed assignments
Build a project team
Build a Project Team through Project Pro for Office 365 or Project Web App, build a Project Team through Project Web App, replace generic resources, work with proposed assignments
Resolve resource over allocations across projects
Level resources using leveling methods; plan resource allocations using Team Planner, Task usage, Resource Requests page, and Resource Utilization
Build a financial plan
Plan program financial requirements using the resource rate table, cost per use, cost resources

Track projects and programs
Baseline enterprise projects
Set a protected baseline, set a baseline from Project Web App and Project Pro for Office 365, clear and copy a baseline
Select tracking method
Use percent complete, hours per period, actual work remaining, freeform, done, and not done fields
Manage task assignments
Publish assignments, select a status manager, select an assignment owner, set the published values for individual tasks
Update tasks and timesheets
Submit and recall timesheets, insert and remove tasks, reassign tasks, submit updates from My Tasks, submit updates from a mobile app
Approve tasks and timesheets
Accept task updates from tasks or timesheets, view impact of updates on a project, reject updates, approve and reject timesheets, manage delegations
Update the project plan
Reschedule uncompleted work, update cost resources, publish schedule changes, utilize task update history, update schedules with protected user updates, close tasks for updates
Collaborate and communicate projects and programs
Create a project site; add Document Library; add Lists, Calendar, and Folders; modify site layout; create program (master-sub) structure using subsites; add risks and issues

Control, report, manage, and extend the PPM solution

Customize Project Web App views and reports
Create a portfolio report using Excel; create dashboards; copy and edit views; set default views; rename field names; group, filter, and sort views
Advanced Reporting
Load the content pack with Power BI, create reports and dashboards, ask natural language questions, leverage filters, pin results to the dashboard, create views with tiles from multiple datasets and reports, create reports using the out-of-the-box reporting capability
Manage configurable enterprise objects
Create and manage enterprise project templates, define enterprise custom fields, define Project workflows, define enterprise global objects, extend with Office Store apps, add social elements
Implement a security model
Change between SharePoint Security mode and Project Security mode, create users, create and modify security groups and categories, set up Project Site permissions
QUESTION 1
Your company has had several large projects fail due to cost overruns and the lack of available resources. These projects use an enterprise project type named Large IT Project and use a workflow to govern the approval of the projects. The workflow consists of four phases; Initiate, Plan, Execute, and Close.
You need to use Microsoft PPM to compare the value that a new project provides with the cost of implementing the project.
Which three configuration changes should you make? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Navigate to PWA Settings Edit the Large IT Project project type, and in the Available Project Detail Page section, add the Strategic Impact form.
B. Create a project-level custom field that will be used to enter the total cost of a project
C. Define your company's strategic drivers, and enter them into the Strategic Impact form.
D. Create a project-level custom field that will be used to enter the value statements of why this project should be undertaken.
E. Define your company's strategic drivers and enter them into the driver library.
F. In PWA Settings, edit and then save the stage information. In the Available Project Detail Page section, add the Strategic Impact.

Answer: B,C,E

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QUESTION 2
You are using Microsoft PPM to manage an e-commerce portal development program. The program is separated into individual projects that represent each area of development.
You have the following requirements:
• All work and progress on individual projects must be reflected in the e-commerce portal development program.
• Each group must be able to manage their own tasks.
You need to set up the e-commerce portal development program and its associated projects in Microsoft PPM.
Where should you add resources?

A. in the e-commerce portal development program project site
B. in the individual project schedules
C. in Build Team, in the e-commerce portal development program schedule
D. in the individual project sites

Answer: C

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C2070-987 IBM Content Manager V8.5 Solution Designer

Test information:
Number of questions: 67
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 62%
Languages: English

The test contains six sections, totaling 67 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - Planning and Architecture (23%)
Design Data Model
Describe performance planning
Identify Workload and Storage Requirements
Design Configuration Topology
Design Authentication Methodology
Design Transport Security
Design Policy for High Availability and Disaster Recovery
Planning for Clients

Section 2 - Installation and Configuration (6%)
Identify installation prerequisites
Identify installation Methods
Configure Base Installation based on Customer Requirements

Section 3 - System Administration (21%)
Configure library server parameters
Define and configure administrative domains
Set up LDAP configuration
Configure resource managers
Define users and assign to user groups
Set up access controls
Define data modeling entities such as attributes and item types
Define document routing processes

Section 4 - Resource Manager Administration (17%)
Define storage hierarchies and devices
Integrate Tivoli Storage Manager with Resource Manager
Manage Resource Manager services
Define Resource Manager migration rules
Define Resource Manager replication rules
Define workstation collections
Define LAN Cache
Identify the Resource Manager Administration Console

Section 5 - Maintenance and Performance Tuning (9%)
Evaluate performance criteria against:
Timing (batch loads/retrieves, image loads, user response, maximum loads)
System Resources (file, size, CPU usage, memory usage, DASD usage, network traffic)
Identify server performance optimization techniques
Identify Resource Manager performance tuning techniques

Section 6 - Application Integration (9%)
Identify requirements for customer client
Indentify CM integration options
Custom application
User Exits
Event Handler
Explain IBM Content Navigator integration with CM

Section 7 - Application Security (6%)
Configure transport security
Configure content security
Configure DB credential security

Section 8 - Troubleshooting (9%)
Determine functionality/component issue
Run traces to diagnose the problem
Review error messages in logs to determine problem
Verify system configuration and associated files
Perform database instance sourcing
Validate system configuration files

IBM Certified Solution Designer - Content Manager V8.5

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification credential enables information management and database professionals to prove their competency on the industry's most advanced content management technology to solve the critical business issue of managing and integrating all forms of information, including scanned images, audio, video and information from multiple sources. IBM content management helps integrate and deliver critical business information on demand. IBM's comprehensive content management portfolio assists organizations that must improve productivity, enhance responsiveness, comply with regulatory demands, and offers a uniquely open and flexible platform for capturing, integrating, managing, records-enabling and delivering all information assets throughout their lifecycle.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Before preparing for this certification, the following knowledge and skills are recommended and assumed:
Hands-on experience implementing IBM Content Manager Version V8.5 in a multi-platform customer environment
Working knowledge of the supported operating systems
Working knowledge of supported IBM Content Manager clients
Working knowledge of relational database concepts
Working knowledge of System Managed Storage, including Tivoli Storage Manager, NAS, SAN
Working knowledge of WebSphere Application Server
General knowledge of LDAP
 

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QUESTION 1
A solution designer is designing an IBM Content Manager system. As part of planning, the designer needs to make sure the hardware will be powerful enough to meet the throughput requirements.
Which of following can be used to measure throughput of an IBM Content Manager system in a given interval of time?

A. The number of database transactions in resource manager.
B. The total number of operations that can be executed per user.
C. The number of concurrent users that can be served by the system.
D. The total number of workload operations that can be executed for the entire system.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 2
An IHM Content Manager solution designer wants to configure two resource managers so that an object is available for both store and retrieval if the resource manager that contains the primary object is offline.
Which of the following options will meet this requirement?

A. Replication between the resource managers.
B. Remote migration between the resource managers.
C. Deploy the resource managers in a WebSphere cluster.
D. Synchronous replication between the resource managers.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 3
A human resources department agrees to share their IBM Content Manager V8.5 infrastructure with the audit department. Both departments want to exclusively administer their users.
Which of the Following options will accomplish this objective?

A. Create user groups
B. Enable administrative domains
C. Create different Resource Managers
D. Create different privilege sets and AC Ls

Answer: B

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QUESTION 4
Multiple users of an IBM Content Manager Enterprise Edition system have reported the following condition:
While using IBM Content Navigator, they are able to search for items and get results.When they try to retrieve stored items, they receive an error. They are also unable to store new items to the IBM Content Manager Enterprise Edition repository.
Based upon the problem description, which component should be checked first?

A. Library server database
B. Resource manager database
C. Resource manager application -server
D. IBM Content Navigator application server

Answer: D

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QUESTION 5
Content is migrated to Tivoli Storage Manager in aggregation mode.
Which of the following changes to settings will enable partial retrieval for Tivoli Storage Manager aggregate object members?

A. TSM_PARTIAI__RETRIEVE_D<SABLED in RMCONFIGURATION table is set to YES.
B. TSM_PARTIAL_RETRIEVE_DISABLED in RMCONFIGURATION table is set to NO. with Tivoli Storage Manager client encryption is used.
C. TSM_PARTIAL_R£TR1EVE_DISABLED in RMCONFIGURATION table is set to NO. with Tivoli Storage Manager client compression is used.
D. TSM_PARTIAL_RETRIEVE_DISABLEDin RMCONFIGURATION tables set to NO, and
neither Tivoli Storage Manager client compression nor Tivoli Storage Manager client encryption is used

Answer: A

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